Recent content by yairl

when i have lim x->0 (x-sinx)/(sinx)^3 why can't I replace it with 1/(sinx)^2-1/(sinx)^2? thanks

Hi, Is there a theorem that says that if f(n) = g(n) and f'(x) >= g'(x) for each x > n, then it means that for each x>n f(x) >= g(x)? or is there a theorem that required more properties of g and f that implies so? Thanks!