Recent content by Yonah

Ok, I think I understand what your getting at. Thanks!

Ok, so you are saying that there would be no contradiction among maxwell's equations necesarily (except of course ∇⋅B=0) if a magnetic monopol existed which decreased in a way other than 1/r^2. Things just wouldn't be symetrical in that case. Is that correct?

Hi, I was reading Purcell's Electricity and Magnetism. It says that if there were a magnetic charge, its field would behave like an electric charge (field pointing out radially and magnitude decreasing as 1/r^2). Why? Could this be deduced from magnetic fields produced by electric charges? If...

thanks!

Hi, I'm a new member!