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MathematicalPhysicist
Dec8-03, 12:43 PM
between 0-1 there are infinite number of rational numbers now between 1-2 there are also infinite number of rational numbers, how can we proove that the number of rational numbers between 0-1 equals to those between 1-2?

does the difference of the domains which equals to each other (1) has any significance?

master_coda
Dec8-03, 01:12 PM
To show that the number of rationals on [0,1] is the same as the number of rationals on [1,2] you just need to find a bijection from [0,1] to [1,2].

Clearly f(x)=x+1 is a suitable bijection.

MathematicalPhysicist
Dec9-03, 03:08 AM
what is x represnts in this context? (the number of rational numbers?).

Guybrush Threepwood
Dec9-03, 03:51 AM
x represents any number in [0, 1]

MathematicalPhysicist
Dec9-03, 04:11 AM
Originally posted by master_coda
To show that the number of rationals on [0,1] is the same as the number of rationals on [1,2] you just need to find a bijection from [0,1] to [1,2].

Clearly f(x)=x+1 is a suitable bijection.
let me see if i understand, x is in [0,1] then f(x) is in [1,2] therfore f:x->f(x) therfore the number of rationals in [0,1] equals to [1,2].

Hurkyl
Dec9-03, 06:38 AM
Also, using the function f(x)=2x, one can prove the number of rationals in [0, 1] is the same as the number of rationals in [0, 2]