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MathematicalPhysicist
Dec18-03, 06:56 AM
can some one explain to me how is taking the logarithm of euler product gives you -sum(p)[log(1-p^s)]+log(s-1)=log[(s-1)z(s)]?

my question is coming after encoutering this equation in this text in page number 2: http://claymath.org/Millennium_Prize_Problems/Riemann_Hypothesis/_objects/Official_Problem_Description.pdf

btw, does taking a logarithm out of a product gives you the summation or what?

thanks in advance.

Muzza
Dec18-03, 09:32 AM
btw, does taking a logarithm out of a product gives you the summation or what?


I don't know if this is of any use to you... But the logarithm of a product is the sum of the logarithms of the factors. That is, log(ab) = log(a) + log(b).

MathematicalPhysicist
Dec18-03, 01:28 PM
yes, i know this but how can you interpret the euler product like this.
lets see it as an example the product of p is 1*2*3...*n so you take the logarithm and you get log1*2*3=log1+log2+log3 which is the summation on this i understand but why adding the term log(s-1)?