teo
Jan11-04, 05:25 AM
hi, first off just have to say these boards kick serious ***!!! Too much interesting posts on here, really like the Mechanical eng board since thats what im doing at uni :)
Right, to the problem,
I do the integral and get the below answer,
Bn = 1/pi [-Cos nt/n] between pi/2 and 0
Bn = 1/pi [[-Cos n(pi/2)/n]-1/n]
but then my notes skip from this to another line,
Bn = 1/npi [1-Cos nt]
The n gets taken out and 1 comes from Cos n0 but why do the signs change?
Right, to the problem,
I do the integral and get the below answer,
Bn = 1/pi [-Cos nt/n] between pi/2 and 0
Bn = 1/pi [[-Cos n(pi/2)/n]-1/n]
but then my notes skip from this to another line,
Bn = 1/npi [1-Cos nt]
The n gets taken out and 1 comes from Cos n0 but why do the signs change?