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View Full Version : Why can't magnetic fields (that deflect electron beams) cant do any work to the beam?


artupayam
Nov10-06, 07:30 PM
A magnetic field deflects an electron beam, but it can not do any work on the beam. Why?

a. since the magnetic force on the beam is zero
b. since the acceleration of the beam is zero
c. since the magnetic force is perpendicular to the trace of the beam
d. none of them

Doc Al
Nov10-06, 07:42 PM
What formula describes the magnetic force on a moving charge?

TheloniousMONK
Nov10-06, 08:14 PM
Recall that the formula for a force of a magnetic field on a charged particle is given by:

F = qv X B , where v and B are vectors.

Also recall the properties of cross products of vectors.

artupayam
Nov10-06, 11:17 PM
Initially I chose d. since the magnetic force is perpendicular to the velocity of the beam. But it was the wrong answer so I took it off from the choices.

Doc Al
Nov11-06, 07:06 AM
What do you think "trace of the beam" means? How does that relate to velocity?

rsk
Nov11-06, 09:29 AM
Artupayam, it seems to me you were thinking along the right lines .... not sure why that didn't lead you to the right answer.

You should be able to eliminate 2 more by default. So only possible answer is..?

artupayam
Nov11-06, 10:26 AM
Ok I see, thanks you guys.