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Rick
Mar4-04, 11:12 PM
I don't have background in analysis, but was looking for
a simple explanation(proof?) of this statement,

Over a compact set, a differentiable function V Rn-> R, with V<0 in that set, then sup(V)<0 in that set


Actually I'm not certain if I interpreted the statement right, so maybe the statement as it is might be wrong/incomplete.

NateTG
Mar5-04, 02:12 AM
You mean
f:\Re^n\rightarrow \Re
and f(v) < 0
?

Consider the possibility that the image of the compact set S might be (-1,0) which certainly has sup 0.

matt grime
Mar5-04, 05:01 AM
The image of a compact set under a continuous (diffble) map is compact.
So considering (0,1) as the image won't get you very far.


Moreover it is bounded and attains its bounds, hence there is some element in the set with V(x)=sup{V(y)}

this is negative by hypothesis