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I am not sure what the answer to this is or how to go about getting an answer for this:
Find:
lim (1 - cos(a*x))/x^2
x->0
My teacher said the answer would have the term 'a' in it.
How do I go about getting the answer to a limit problem like this? Thank you.
\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{1 - \cos ax}{x^2} = \frac{1 - \cos 0}{0^2} = \infty ^+
I might be wrong though, but I think the limit is (positive) infinity and that the function has an asymptote at x = 0.
Sorry to say that Chen, but you are wrong. To solve this, look at the power series of cos(ax). Like this you will have 1/2*a^2x^2+O(x^4) on top of the line and another square term below. So the limit is...
You can also use L'Hôpital (twice), if you know it.
It's trivial with l'Hopital's rule, but your teacher may or may not want you to use that ;)
lim (x -> 0) (1 - cos(a*x)) / x^2 =
lim (x -> 0) a * sin(ax) / (2x) =
lim (x -> 0) aa * cos(ax) / 2 =
a^2 * 1/2 =
a^2/2
I figured it was too simple to be true. [;)]
I'm not supposed to know about L'Hopital's rule yet. How could I come up with that forumla? I have to show some kind of evidence. I don't know how to come up with that formula. Thanks.
Hmm, \lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{1 - \cos ax}{x^2}
Using the maclaurin series:
\cos ax \approx 1 - \frac{(ax)^2}{2}
Try that [:D]
I do not think I am supposed to know that either. Is there an easy way to prove that the limit is (ax^2)/2?
cookiemonster
Mar25-04, 09:10 PM
You could always graph it on a calculator and point.
cookiemonster
Yeah I know I did that for when a = 1, 1.5, and 2. But I don't know how to find the forumla for finding the limit if a was anything.
cookiemonster
Mar25-04, 11:14 PM
Er, I guess you could always try delta-epsilon proofs, but I don't think you want to go there.
Why not just plot it for a bunch of values of a and look for a pattern? If you have 20 values of a of varying value supporting you, it's pretty solid for your purposes.
cookiemonster
arildno
Mar26-04, 03:11 AM
Suppose you are allowed to know the limits: lim(x->0)(sin(x)/x)=1,lim(x->0)(cos(x)=1),
im(x->0)(a(x)*b(x))=lim(x->0)a(x))*(lim(x->0)b(x),
lim(x->0)(a(x)/b(x))=(lim(x->0)a(x))/(lim(x->0)b(x))
Then you may do without MacLaurin series/L'Hopital's Rule in your proof
MathematicalPhysicist
Mar26-04, 03:32 AM
Er, I guess you could always try delta-epsilon proofs, but I don't think you want to go there.
Why not just plot it for a bunch of values of a and look for a pattern? If you have 20 values of a of varying value supporting you, it's pretty solid for your purposes.
cookiemonster
now that's very rigorous [:D]
I do not think I am supposed to know that either. Is there an easy way to prove that the limit is (ax^2)/2? Then would you mind explaining what areas you have covered around this sort of area?
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