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deadringer
May20-07, 11:50 PM
Assuming the Lorentz force law and also that in the rest frame of the particle the 3 acceleration is zero, we need to explain why the following equations hold:

E.v = 0 and E + v.B = 0

where v is the velocity.

I think this is because g(A,A) = -a squared is invariant. Therefore if a=0, I think this means that A must equal zero in every frame. Is this true, or can A be non zero and we get g(A,A) = 0 (i.e A is null).

Meir Achuz
May21-07, 09:40 AM
I am not sure what you mean by A and a, but acceleration is not a 4-vector, and has complicated LT properties.
In the rest frame for a=0, E=0, and B is unknown.
Since E=0, E' in a system moving with velocity v is given by
{\vec E}=\gamma{\vec v}\times{\vec B}, so
{\vec v}\cdot{\vec E'}=0.

Meir Achuz
May21-07, 09:45 AM
E=|{\vec E'}|=\gamma v B,
but {\vec v}\cdot{\vec B'}=v B.

Therefore E'+{\vec v}\cdot{\vec B'}
does not equal zero.