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travis0868
Oct4-07, 10:12 PM
When is the following true?

f(lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\ g_{n}(x)) =

lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\ f(g_{n}(x))

Does anyone know of a textbook that discusses this?

Eighty
Oct5-07, 04:40 AM
Assuming f and g_n are complex-valued, iff f is continuous.

travis0868
Oct5-07, 05:31 AM
But what if f is the following function:

f(g(x)) = \int^{b}_{a} g(x) dx

If that's the case,

f(lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} g_{n}(x)) = \int^{b}_{a} lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}g_{n}(x) dx

and

lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} f(g_{n}(x)) = lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \int^{b}_{a} g_{n}(x) dx

These two are equal only when g_{n}(x) is uniformly convergent.