LostInSpace
Apr18-04, 10:40 AM
I am a bit confused about taylor approximation. Taylor around x_0 yields
f(x) = f(x_0) + f'(x_0)(x-x_0) + O(x^2)
which is the tangent of f in x_0, where
f'(x) = f'(x_0) + f''(x_0)(x-x_0) + O(x^2)
which adds up to
f(x) &=& f(x_0) + (f'(x_0) + f''(x_0)(x-x_0) + O(x^2))(x-x_0)+O(x^2) \\ &=& f(x_0) + f'(x_0)(x-x_0) + f''(x_0)(x-x_0)^2 + O(x^3)
But it should be
f(x) = f(x_0) + f'(x_0)(x-x_0) + \frac{f''(x_0)}{2!}(x-x_0)^2 + O(x^3)
Where does the 2! come from? Is this approach completely incorrect?
f(x) = f(x_0) + f'(x_0)(x-x_0) + O(x^2)
which is the tangent of f in x_0, where
f'(x) = f'(x_0) + f''(x_0)(x-x_0) + O(x^2)
which adds up to
f(x) &=& f(x_0) + (f'(x_0) + f''(x_0)(x-x_0) + O(x^2))(x-x_0)+O(x^2) \\ &=& f(x_0) + f'(x_0)(x-x_0) + f''(x_0)(x-x_0)^2 + O(x^3)
But it should be
f(x) = f(x_0) + f'(x_0)(x-x_0) + \frac{f''(x_0)}{2!}(x-x_0)^2 + O(x^3)
Where does the 2! come from? Is this approach completely incorrect?