I don't think the two steps are equivalent. Let b=0, then a^2=1 if P \neq 0. Substituting these into the second equation, we have a^2 = 1 only if P = 0
mr.t
Aug18-08, 10:30 AM
It could be an error in the solution then :grumpy: no fun try to learn stuff when you end up spending your time figuring out the imposible...