Now draw your triangle to figure out what that expression becomes.
Note that you would do that by saying opp/adj = x so let opp = x and adj = 1 which means hyp = sqrt(1 + x^2), now since we need cosine = adj/hyp = 1/sqrt(1 + x^2) however since we have cosine^2, that gets rid of the sqrt( ) and you are left with 1/(1 + x^2). Hope this helped
snipez90
Aug20-08, 02:19 PM
Or note that as NoMoreExams had y = arctan(x) \Rightarrow tan(y) = x. Now the derivative is sec^2(y)y' = 1 \Rightarrow y' = \frac{1}{sec^{2}(y)} = \frac{1}{tan^2(y)+1} = \frac{1}{x^2 + 1}.
HallsofIvy
Aug22-08, 06:42 AM
1/(x^2+1)
Yes.
Strictly speaking it is 1/(x2+ 1)+ C
Cvan
Aug22-08, 07:12 AM
Strictly speaking it is 1/(x2+ 1)+ C
Why do you need the constant for differentiation? Wouldn't that introduce the variable again when integrating back?
nicksauce
Aug22-08, 09:48 AM
Strictly speaking it is 1/(x2+ 1)+ C
I've never heard of the constant of differentiation.
transgalactic
Aug22-08, 05:44 PM
where there are no borders to the integral we are solving we use +C
but when we use a derivative i dont think we use +C
rbj
Aug22-08, 11:09 PM
Strictly speaking it is 1/(x2+ 1)+ C
Halls, you're kidding, aren't you?
afcwestwarrior
Aug22-08, 11:44 PM
thanks it turned out tan^-1=arctan
mathwonk
Aug23-08, 12:23 AM
this equivalent to the fact that the derivative of tan is sec^2 = 1 + tan^2.
i.e. tan' = 1 + tan^2 implies the deriv of tan^-1 is 1/1+x^2.
HallsofIvy
Aug23-08, 06:19 AM
Ooops! You are right. I was thinking integration. There goes me trying to be a smarthmouth again!