Understanding the Relationship between Force and Radius in Circular Motion

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between force and radius in the context of circular motion, specifically examining two formulas: Fc = mv²/r and Fc = 4π²r/T². Participants explore the implications of these formulas regarding the proportionality of force to radius.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant notes that in the formula Fc = mv²/r, force is inversely proportional to radius, while in Fc = 4π²r/T², radius appears to be directly proportional to force.
  • Another participant suggests that if angular velocity (2π/T) is constant, then velocity is directly proportional to radius, which may affect the interpretation of the formulas.
  • A participant points out a potential omission of mass in the second formula, indicating a possible misunderstanding in the application of the formulas.
  • There is a repeated question about the expected inverse proportionality, indicating confusion or disagreement about the relationship described by the formulas.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the proportionality of force and radius, with some arguing for inverse proportionality and others suggesting direct proportionality under certain conditions. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the interpretation of the formulas.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of missing assumptions regarding the conditions under which the formulas apply, particularly concerning angular velocity and mass. The discussion does not clarify these assumptions.

Epsillon
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Alright so in one formula Fc= mv^2/r and another Fc= 4pi^2r/T^2


Although the two formlas are the same Mathematicly but isn't Fc porportional to the inverse of the r as it is shown in the first one. So why is r directly porportional to Fc in the second one?
 
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Epsillon said:
Alright so in one formula Fc= mv^2/r and another Fc= 4pi^2r/T^2Although the two formlas are the same Mathematicly but isn't Fc porportional to the inverse of the r as it is shown in the first one. So why is r directly porportional to Fc in the second one?

because if the angular velocity (2pi/T) is constant then v is directly proportional to r. Also, you are missing an m in your 2nd formula.
 
No but isn't it supposed to be inversly proportional?
 
Epsillon said:
No but isn't it supposed to be inversly proportional?

did you read what i wrote?
 
Yes I understand this now thanks for the help :)
 

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