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catch.yossarian
Jun17-04, 12:50 AM
In Mathworld ( mathworld.wolfram.com/SimpleInterest.html), they define Simple Interest as:

a(t) = a(0)(1 + rt)

where a(t) is the sum of principal and interest at time t for a constant interest rate r.

I just want to know why that 0 is in there. Anything divided by 0 will be 0, thus a(t) = 0?

malco97
Jun17-04, 03:28 AM
I would imagine that a(0) is the principle as it is the sum of the principle and the interest at t=0. Since there is no interest at t=0 the sum of the principle and the interest would be the principle.

cookiemonster
Jun17-04, 03:50 AM
Anything divided by 0 is undefined...

They're saying a(t) is a function and a(0) is that function evaluated at t=0.

It would be more clearly written a[t] = (1 + rt)*a[t=0]

cookiemonster

HallsofIvy
Jun17-04, 06:10 AM
In other words, the "a(0)" is not "a times 0", it is "the function a(t) evaluated at t= 0".

russ_watters
Jun17-04, 09:39 AM
In other words, the "a(0)" is not "a times 0", it is "the function a(t) evaluated at t= 0". And in still more words (well, actually less words), "a(0)" is the principal.

Ironic - I was just looking for this formula so I could buy a car...

edit: oops - they don't use that formula.

Gokul43201
Jun17-04, 11:12 AM
Russ,

If you're talking about the depreciation curve, I think that's exponential, not linear.

Edit : No, you're calculating payments, aren't you. I think that's compounded.