View Full Version : power of a sine wave (electronics engineering)
priscared
Jun15-09, 06:19 AM
This is obviously an electronics question.
In communication systems, to calculate the power of a sine wave, the formula below is used
Power (Sine Wave) = 1/2 * (peak amplitude)^2
This formula is apparently a standard electronics formula.
I'm trying to understand where it comes from. How is it possible to get a power figure from a voltage only? There is no information on period, current, or resistance. Can some one please help explain the logic behind this formula for me?
Maybe its a simple trick, to me they've probably simply integrated the sign wave, but the limits must cancel out... i Don't know.... help please..
Cheers
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daviddoria
Jun15-09, 10:02 AM
priscared, I'm pretty sure the definition makes the assumption of "1" unit of resistance - where the unit is whatever makes sense to produce the power units you choose. I've asked this question several times, and that is the only answer I've seen.
Freddy_Turnip
Jun16-09, 03:44 PM
yeah... normalised with a 1 Ohm resistor.
>> I'm trying to understand where it comes from.
It is derived from the Poynting vector (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poynting_vector).
>> How is it possible to get a power figure from a voltage only?
P = UI = U*(U/R) = U2/R
trambolin
Jun21-09, 12:29 PM
Have you ever tried Fourier Transform of a pure sine?
daviddoria
Jun21-09, 12:32 PM
what does that have to do with anything trambolin? I mean I know rayleighs equality... but we are wondering about the units here, right?
trambolin
Jun21-09, 12:35 PM
I meant power of a infinite signal in terms of 2-norm, Plancherel, parseval etc. If everthing is normalized as you did for 1 ohm resistance... but anyway, nevermind, maybe you are right.
priscared
Jun22-09, 10:12 AM
hmmm... indeed the poynting vector may have some relevance. But if some1 could point me to a meaningful explanation i would be impressed. I am assuming the assumptions is resistance = 1. And thats how the formula exists.
The rule almost seems like an anomaly, every1 uses it without thinking about its origin...
trambolin
Jun23-09, 08:17 AM
Maybe you should use google wisely? I mentioned the Fourier Transform already... Does not tickle something at least?
http://cnx.org/content/m0062/latest/
priscared
Jun23-09, 08:50 AM
" A signal's instantaneous power is
defined to be its square, as if it were a voltage or current passing through a 1 Ω resistor. "
THanks for the link
This rule is obviously just an arbitrary convention. It's obviously the definition of "instantaneous power".
BTw i can't see how this has anything to do with Fourier transforms.
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