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pamparana
Jun21-09, 04:41 PM
Hello everyone,

I was looking at the proof of chain rule as posted here:

http://web.mit.edu/wwmath/calculus/differentiation/chain-proof.html

I am having trouble understanding why delta(u) tends to 0 as delta(x) tends to 0. Can someone point out to me why that is so?

Many thanks,

Luca

qntty
Jun21-09, 04:49 PM
Because the limit \lim_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac {\Delta u}{\Delta x} must exist by hypothesis, and the only way that can happen is if \Delta u decreases as \Delta x decreases. The limit doesn't need to be 1 because the rate that the denominator and numerator decrease can differ, but it does need to be finite. Think of what would happen if \Delta u approached a nonzero number or diverged to infinity; the limit would also diverge or not exist.

slider142
Jun21-09, 05:21 PM
Hello everyone,

I was looking at the proof of chain rule as posted here:

http://web.mit.edu/wwmath/calculus/differentiation/chain-proof.html

I am having trouble understanding why delta(u) tends to 0 as delta(x) tends to 0. Can someone point out to me why that is so?

Many thanks,

Luca

u is continuous (at at least one point, the point where it is differentiable), which means
\lim_{x\rightarrow a} u(x) = u(a)
for all constants 'a' at which u is continuous which is equivalent to your statement (u(x) approaches u(a) as x approaches a).
Expanding the deltas in your limit we have the statement
\lim_{x\rightarrow x_0} \frac{u(x) - u(x_0)}{x - x_0}
where a = x0.