View Full Version : average value
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 08:26 PM
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Find the average value of f(x,y)=sin(x+y) over the rectangle 0 ≤ x ≤ pi, 0 ≤ y ≤ pi.
2. Relevant equations
I need to know if this is the right answer please.
3. The attempt at a solution
I got 1/pi as a answer.
You're not going to make us work this out, are you? Show us how you got it.
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 08:44 PM
well i dont no how to show the symbols
Just click on the integral below, and a window will open with the LaTeX code. All you need to do is fill in where there are question marks.
For pi, use \pi. A is the area of your region. If you want to switch the order of integration, change the bottom limit from x to y and vice-versa, and switch the dx and dy.
\frac{1}{A}\int_{x = ?}^? \int_{y = ?}^? sin(x + y) dy~dx
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 09:10 PM
\frac{1}{A}\int_{x = 0}^\pi \int_{y = 0}^\pi sin(x + y) dy~dx
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 09:23 PM
yeah i cant figure out how to make it look like yours. It just stays in the formula form
\frac{1}{A}\int_{x = 0}^\pi \int_{y = 0}^\pi sin(x + y) dy~dx
It needs to be inside [ tex] [ /tex] tags (without the space I added). Like so:
\frac{1}{A}\int_{x = 0}^\pi \int_{y = 0}^\pi sin(x + y) dy~dx
OK, so what do you get for the integral, and what do you get for A?
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 09:34 PM
For A i get pi^2
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 09:35 PM
the end integral i get
1/pi^2[-cosx-x(from 0 to pi)] which i get -1/pi
jbunniii
Nov3-09, 09:50 PM
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Find the average value of f(x,y)=sin(x+y) over the rectangle 0 ≤ x ≤ pi, 0 ≤ y ≤ pi.
2. Relevant equations
I need to know if this is the right answer please.
3. The attempt at a solution
I got 1/pi as a answer.
I tried it and got 0. Can you show us what you got after evaluating the inner integral?
P.S. This is almost immediate if you use
\sin(x+y) = \sin(x)\cos(y) + \cos(x)\sin(y)
and break the integral into two parts, integrating the cosine term first in each case (trivial if you use symmetry).
The area is correct, but I'm pretty sure you made an error in calculating the integral. How did you get -cosx -x?
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 10:03 PM
\frac{1}{pi^2}\int_0^pi\int_0^pi sin(x+y)dydx=\frac{1}{pi^2}\int_0^pi sin(x)[-cosy|_0^pi] dx=\frac{1}{pi^2}\int_0^pi (sinx-1)dx=\frac{1}{pi^2}[-cosx-x|_0^pi]=\frac{-pi}{pi^2}=\frac{-1}{pi}
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 10:03 PM
\frac{1}{pi^2}\int_0^pi\int_0^pi sin(x+y)dydx=\frac{1}{pi^2}\int_0^pi sin(x)[-cosy|_0^pi] dx=\frac{1}{pi^2}\int_0^pi (sinx-1)dx=\frac{1}{pi^2}[-cosx-x|_0^pi]=\frac{-pi}{pi^2}=\frac{-1}{pi}
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 10:05 PM
\frac{1}{\pi^2}\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi sin(x+y)dydx=\frac{1}{\pi^2}\int_0^\pi sin(x)[-cosy|_0^\pi] dx=\frac{1}{\pi^2}\int_0^\pi (sinx-1)dx=\frac{1}{\pi^2}[-cosx-x|_0^\pi]=\frac{-\pi}{\pi^2}=\frac{-1}{\pi}
jbunniii
Nov3-09, 10:43 PM
\frac{1}{\pi^2}\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi sin(x+y)dydx=\frac{1}{\pi^2}\int_0^\pi sin(x)[-cosy|_0^\pi] dx
I'm not sure what you did in this step. Here is how I did it:
\begin{align*}\int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin(x+y) dy dx
&= \int_0^{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi} \sin x \cos y dy dx + \int_0^{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi} \cos x \sin y dy dx \\
&= \int_0^\pi \sin x \left(\int_0^\pi \cos y dy \right) dx + \int_0^\pi \sin y \left(\int_0^\pi \cos x dx \right) dy \\
&= \int_0^\pi (\sin x) (0) dx + \int_0^\pi (\sin y) (0) dy \\
&= 0
\end{align*}
You can also do it without using the trig identity; I highly recommend doing so. (The answer is still 0.)
chevy900ss
Nov3-09, 10:48 PM
i see i was just no where near the right answer.
jbunniii
Nov3-09, 10:49 PM
\frac{1}{\pi^2}\int_0^\pi\int_0^\pi sin(x+y)dydx=\frac{1}{\pi^2}\int_0^\pi sin(x)[-cosy|_0^\pi] dx
Wait... are you assuming here that
\sin(x+y) = \sin(x) \sin(y)?
It seems that you are, but that's wrong. The inner integral should be
\int_0^\pi \sin(x+y) dy = [-\cos(x+y)]|_{y=0}^{y=\pi} = -\cos(x+\pi) + \cos(x) = \cos(x) + \cos(x) = 2\cos(x)
Now do the outer integral:
\frac{1}{\pi^2} \int_0^\pi 2 \cos(x) dx
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