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lil_luc
Feb1-10, 01:02 PM
I need some help/hints on how to prove this statement. I don't know where to start!


Prove that if m and n are positive integers such that m|n, then φ(mn) = mφ(n).

Thanks

JSuarez
Feb1-10, 05:39 PM
It's a direct consequence of Euler's formula:

\phi\left(n\right)=n(1-\frac{1}{p_1})(1-\frac{1}{p_2}) \cdots (1-\frac{1}{p_k})

Because the hypothesis implies that the prime factorization of m has the same factors as n.

Or you can count the numbers that are coprime with nm in \left\{1,\ldots,mn\right\} and prove that there are as many as the ones that are coprime with n in \left\{1,\ldots,n\right\}.