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ian2012
Apr10-10, 11:42 AM
A very basic question:

Why is the definition of gravitational potential energy, bringing an object from infinity (or any point of reference) to zero, the negative of the line integral of F.dr ? I am assuming since potential energy in an attractive field , which is defined to be negative, the integral was fixed to lead to this result... or is there a more mathematical reason?

tiny-tim
Apr10-10, 01:18 PM
Hi ian2012! :smile:

potential energy (gravitational electric or whatever) is defined as minus the work done …

and work done = integral of force "dot" displacement …

so PE = -W = -∫ F.dr :wink:

(and it has to be minus so that the work-energy theorem works)

ian2012
Apr11-10, 05:31 AM
thank you for your post

rcgldr
Apr11-10, 09:21 PM
Object infinity zeroIn the case of gravity from a point source, potential energy = -G m M / r. Because of this, using infinity as a reference point makes since, becaue - G m M / ∞ = 0, and all GPE's at finite distances from a gravitational point source would be negative.