hedlund
Oct8-04, 02:55 PM
Let y = x^p where p is a natural number. Is it true that
\frac{dx^n}{d^ny} = \frac{p!}{(p-n)!} \cdot x^{p-n} with the restriction that we define (-n)! \equiv \infty for n=1,2,3... I found this formula and I believe that it is true if we define (-n)! to equal \infty .
\frac{dx^n}{d^ny} = \frac{p!}{(p-n)!} \cdot x^{p-n} with the restriction that we define (-n)! \equiv \infty for n=1,2,3... I found this formula and I believe that it is true if we define (-n)! to equal \infty .