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jose80
Mar25-11, 08:36 PM
Hi,

I got accross this question, if $F:[0,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ is differentiable, then how to show it is derivative $F'$ is Borel measurable?

Any idea?

Landau
Mar26-11, 11:18 AM
Hi jose80, you will need to use [tex ]..[ /tex] (without the spaces) instead of $..$.

Write F' as the (pointwise) limit of measurable functions, using the definition of derivative.

g_edgar
Mar27-11, 05:08 PM
In more detail, for each fixed n the function f_n defined by
f_n(x) = \frac{f(x+1/n)-f(x)}{1/n}
is continuous, and f'(x) is the pointwise limit.

Landau
Mar27-11, 05:14 PM
@g_edgar: I purposely avoided this amount of detail, because it sounds like homework, and my hint seemed quite reasonable to me.

jose80
Mar30-11, 06:48 PM
Hi, thanks for the answers, I tried to look up why a pointwise limit of continuous functions is Borel measurable, but I couldn't figure out that?

Any reference or hint?

Landau
Mar31-11, 04:10 PM
The pointwise limit of (real-valued) measurable functions is measurable. That is one of the most basic and important results in (elementary) measure theory. If that's not in the book you're reading, then I'm pretty sure that's not a book about measure theory :)

E.g. see here (http://unapologetic.wordpress.com/2010/05/10/sequences-of-measurable-functions/).