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Alem2000
Nov4-04, 03:49 PM
I have \sum_{n=1}^\infty{\frac{1}{n^2+n+1}} and I need to show that it converges or diverges. I choose to do the comparison test making A_n=\sum_{n=1}^\infty{\frac{1}{n^2+n+1}} and B_n=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+n} so far so good? Okay well \lim_{n\rightarrow0}B_n=0 so does A_n converge...i see that the upper limit of A_n would turn out to be 0 what does this mean...is it valid to use the rule I used?

what if did \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2+x+1}dx is that possible or is there no need?

arildno
Nov4-04, 04:00 PM
Here, you are confusing indexes!!!

Your expressions have no meaning; what convergence in this case means, is that the SEQUENCE OF PARTIAL (FINITE!!!) SUMS CONVERGE.

Hence, your index in that sequence SHOULD BE THE UPPER LIMIT VALUE IN THE SUM, not the summation index you've used!!

We therefore have the partial sum:
A_{N}=\sum_{n=1}^{N}\frac{1}{n^{2}+n+1}

Our question is therefore:
Does the sequence A_{N} converge as N\to\infty ??

To help you on your way, note that:
A_{N}\leq{B}_{N},B_{N}=\sum_{n=1}^{N}\frac{1}{n^{2 }}

Alem2000
Nov4-04, 04:13 PM
thats a p series and its greater than one...easy...so A_n must converge...is that my answer?

arildno
Nov5-04, 05:27 AM
That's right.

HallsofIvy
Nov5-04, 07:03 AM
You are also confusing "series" and "sequences". If
B_n=\sum_{n=1}^{N}\frac{1}{n^2+n}

then \lim_{n\rightarrow0}B_n=0
is NOT true. What is true is that the SEQUENCE {B[sub]n[/b]} goes to 0 and that tells you nothing about the series! (If the sequence did NOT converge to 0, that would tell you that the series does not converge.)