View Full Version : Random Variable Measurability w.r.t. Sigma Fields
empyreandance
Sep14-11, 02:55 PM
Hello everyone,
I'm having a little trouble with a probability problem with three parts; I think I'm having trouble wrapping my head around just what's going on here. If anyone could give me a starting point, I'd appreciate it.
Here's the problem (Billingsley 5.1) (X a random variable)
a. Show that X is measurable w.r.t. the sigma field J iff sigma(X) is a subset of J. Show that X is a measurable w.r.t. sigma(Y) iff sigma(x) is a subset of sigma(Y)
b. Show that if J = {empty set, omega}, then X is measurable w.r.t. J iff X is constant.
c. Suppose that P(A) is 0 or 1 for every A in J. This holds, for example, if J is the tail field of an independent sequence, or if J consists of the countable and cocountable sets on the unit interval with Lebesgue measure. Show that if X is measurable w.r.t. J, then P[X=c] = 1 for some constant c.
Thanks for any and all help!
Best regards
micromass
Sep14-11, 03:11 PM
Did you see topology already?? The techniques used here ressembles the techniques in topology.
Anyway, for (a), you need to prove that if X is measurable, then \sigma(X) is a subset of J.
So, firstly, how is \sigma(X) defined?
empyreandance
Sep14-11, 03:42 PM
Hello,
I thought there might be some sort of topological argument, but the book is very analysis-oriented, so I was trying to stick to that line of thinking. σ(X) is defined as the smallest sigma field that X is measurable w.r.t., i.e. the intersection of all such fields.
micromass
Sep14-11, 03:44 PM
Hello,
I thought there might be some sort of topological argument, but the book is very analysis-oriented, so I was trying to stick to that line of thinking. σ(X) is defined as the smallest sigma field that X is measurable w.r.t., i.e. the intersection of all such fields.
OK, so \sigma(X) is the smallest sigma field such that X is measurable. Doesn't that make it easy to show that \sigma(X)\subseteq J?? X is measurable w.r.t. J after all...
empyreandance
Sep14-11, 03:51 PM
Ah yes, of course it does. I'm not sure why I missed that. Thanks. As for the other parts, any suggestions?
micromass
Sep14-11, 03:53 PM
For the reverse, you know that \sigma(X)\subseteq Jand that \sigma(X) makes X measurable. You need to show that J makes X measurable. So by going to a finer sigma field, you preserve measurability. That shouldn't be too difficult?
empyreandance
Sep14-11, 04:01 PM
No, it's not bad at all. It's more parts b and c that I remain a bit lost on
micromass
Sep14-11, 04:03 PM
OK take X to be measurable wrt the trivial sigma field. We wish to prove that X is constant.
What is \{X=c\} for each c in \mathbb{R}?? A measurable set w.r.t. the trivial sigma field,right?? What can you deduce?
empyreandance
Sep14-11, 05:09 PM
Yes, definitely measurable. Oh! If X is not constant, then the inverse image maps to a set strictly smaller than the space, or am I completely confused now? My apologies, for some reason I'm having particular difficulty on this one.
micromass
Sep14-11, 05:22 PM
OK, \{X=c\} is a measurable set wrt to the trivial sigma-algebra. But the trivial sigma-algebra only has two measurable sets: \emptyset and \Omega.
So what are the only possibilities for \{X=c\}??
empyreandance
Sep14-11, 07:28 PM
Ah, either the empty set or the entire space. So, for {X=C} to be measurable it either has to be the empty set or omega.
micromass
Sep14-11, 07:29 PM
Ah, either the empty set or the entire space. So, for {X=C} to be measurable it either has to be the empty set or omega.
Yes! And what does it mean that \{X=c\}=\Omega??
empyreandance
Sep14-11, 09:47 PM
It means the set of x in omega s.t. X(x) = c is the entire space, correct?
micromass
Sep14-11, 10:00 PM
It means the set of x in omega s.t. X(x) = c is the entire space, correct?
So, if \{X=c\}=\Omega, then the function is constant, right??
What you have proven is that either \{X=c\} is empty or is omega. If there is a c such that \{X=c\}, then you're done.
Now prove that there must exist such a c. Hint: what is \{X\in \mathbb{R}\}??
empyreandance
Sep15-11, 11:22 AM
Yes, the function is assuredly constant. X in R is the set of omega such that X(w) is in R. However, X is a random variable, so it maps from the the space to R. So, I feel the connections starting to coalesce in my head... I think now, Since J is the empty set or the whole space and we've shown that either {X=c} is empty or is omega, then since X in R is the set of omega such that X(w) is in R, which should be the entire space. Then, since if a X(y) = d, whereas X(x) = c elsewhere, both these sets would map back to sets strictly smaller than the space, but strictly larger than the empty set by the way they're defined, yes?
micromass
Sep15-11, 11:27 AM
Seems alright!!
empyreandance
Sep15-11, 11:29 AM
Awesome, I can't thank you enough for both your help and patience!
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