cjellison
Nov21-04, 04:09 AM
Hello. I was seeking some clarification on what should be a trivial problem.
Consider f(x) = x^3 . Does this function have an inverse?
Well....many websites seem to say so...as do the solution sets for some abstract algebra courses. Certainly, my TI-89 has no trouble plotting the inverse. Without thinking about it too much, I would have to conclude that
f^{-1}(x) = x^{1/3}
But is this actually correct? I have convinced myself that it is not. Let me make my case...and then hopefully someone can shed light on my eyes.
First, I want to take a tangent and summarize some of the properties of exponents. Please comment on these---are they correct? too strong? not strong enough?
---
Typically, we are told that (x^a)^b = x^{ab} without any proper restictions on a and b. So here is my shot:
Let x\in \mathbb{R} . Unless stated otherwise, a and b are real numbers.
\begin{align*}
\text{If } b \in \mathbb{Z}, &\qquad\text{then } (x^a)^b = x^{ab}.\\
\text{If } b \notin \mathbb{Z}, &\qquad\text{then } (x^a)^b \neq x^{ab}.\\
\text{If } a \in \{2,4,6,\ldots\}, &\qquad\text{then } (x^a)^b = |x|^{ab}.\\
\text{If } a \in \{2,4,6,\ldots\}, &\qquad\text{then } (x^a)^{1/a} = |x|.\\&\\
\text{In general, } &\qquad(x^a)^{1/a} \neq x.
\end{align*}
For example, (x^{1/2})^2 = |x| . However, (x^2)^{1/2} \neq x .
---
Now, back to the problem. Let me clairfy first: Let f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} .
Now, consider the follow example:
\begin{align*}
f \left( f^{-1}(3) \right) &= \left(3^{1/3}\right)^3 = 3\\
f \left( f^{-1}(-3) \right) &= \left((-3)^{1/3}\right)^3 = -3\\&\\
f^{-1}\left( f(3) \right) &= \left( 3^3 \right)^{1/3} = 27^{1/3} = 3\\
f^{-1}\left( f(-3) \right) &= \left( (-3)^3 \right)^{1/3} =
(-27)^{1/3} = 3\,e^{i\pi/3}
\end{align*}
Essentially, this example shows that
\begin{align*}
f(f^{-1}(x)) \neq f^{-1}(f(x))
\end{align*}
but this must be true for the inverse function! Thus, it would appear that all those websites which claimed an inverse for x^3 were wrong.
What is going on here? When I look at f(x)=x^3, I see that it is onto and that it is 1-1. Could the problem be that f(x) = x^3 does not have an inverse when the range is the complex numbers---thus, it only has an inverse when f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R} rather than f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{C} . Or is the problem that f^{-1}(x) is only valid for x>0? If so, why does this restriction exist. Again, f(x) = x^3 is 1-1 and onto.
This problem came up while I was trying to show that the Legendre transformation of f(x) = x^\alpha / \alpha was g(y) = y^\beta/\beta where 1 = \alpha^{-1} + \beta^{-1} . Since f must be convex, \alpha must be even.
To do this, I say that y = f'(x) = x^{\alpha - 1} . This is x raised to an odd power. Basically, I have to solve for x in terms of y---which means I need to get rid of that exponent. I can get the result I seek, but it requires that I say that y^{1/(\alpha - 1)} = x . I guess I don't feel comfortable with that statement...it seems like I am throwing away possible solutions.
Thanks,
Consider f(x) = x^3 . Does this function have an inverse?
Well....many websites seem to say so...as do the solution sets for some abstract algebra courses. Certainly, my TI-89 has no trouble plotting the inverse. Without thinking about it too much, I would have to conclude that
f^{-1}(x) = x^{1/3}
But is this actually correct? I have convinced myself that it is not. Let me make my case...and then hopefully someone can shed light on my eyes.
First, I want to take a tangent and summarize some of the properties of exponents. Please comment on these---are they correct? too strong? not strong enough?
---
Typically, we are told that (x^a)^b = x^{ab} without any proper restictions on a and b. So here is my shot:
Let x\in \mathbb{R} . Unless stated otherwise, a and b are real numbers.
\begin{align*}
\text{If } b \in \mathbb{Z}, &\qquad\text{then } (x^a)^b = x^{ab}.\\
\text{If } b \notin \mathbb{Z}, &\qquad\text{then } (x^a)^b \neq x^{ab}.\\
\text{If } a \in \{2,4,6,\ldots\}, &\qquad\text{then } (x^a)^b = |x|^{ab}.\\
\text{If } a \in \{2,4,6,\ldots\}, &\qquad\text{then } (x^a)^{1/a} = |x|.\\&\\
\text{In general, } &\qquad(x^a)^{1/a} \neq x.
\end{align*}
For example, (x^{1/2})^2 = |x| . However, (x^2)^{1/2} \neq x .
---
Now, back to the problem. Let me clairfy first: Let f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} .
Now, consider the follow example:
\begin{align*}
f \left( f^{-1}(3) \right) &= \left(3^{1/3}\right)^3 = 3\\
f \left( f^{-1}(-3) \right) &= \left((-3)^{1/3}\right)^3 = -3\\&\\
f^{-1}\left( f(3) \right) &= \left( 3^3 \right)^{1/3} = 27^{1/3} = 3\\
f^{-1}\left( f(-3) \right) &= \left( (-3)^3 \right)^{1/3} =
(-27)^{1/3} = 3\,e^{i\pi/3}
\end{align*}
Essentially, this example shows that
\begin{align*}
f(f^{-1}(x)) \neq f^{-1}(f(x))
\end{align*}
but this must be true for the inverse function! Thus, it would appear that all those websites which claimed an inverse for x^3 were wrong.
What is going on here? When I look at f(x)=x^3, I see that it is onto and that it is 1-1. Could the problem be that f(x) = x^3 does not have an inverse when the range is the complex numbers---thus, it only has an inverse when f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R} rather than f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{C} . Or is the problem that f^{-1}(x) is only valid for x>0? If so, why does this restriction exist. Again, f(x) = x^3 is 1-1 and onto.
This problem came up while I was trying to show that the Legendre transformation of f(x) = x^\alpha / \alpha was g(y) = y^\beta/\beta where 1 = \alpha^{-1} + \beta^{-1} . Since f must be convex, \alpha must be even.
To do this, I say that y = f'(x) = x^{\alpha - 1} . This is x raised to an odd power. Basically, I have to solve for x in terms of y---which means I need to get rid of that exponent. I can get the result I seek, but it requires that I say that y^{1/(\alpha - 1)} = x . I guess I don't feel comfortable with that statement...it seems like I am throwing away possible solutions.
Thanks,