FJ Rolfes
Oct6-11, 03:59 PM
I can find various derivations of ∫ dθ = 0 which are satisfactory, but none of ∫dθ θ =1.
Cheng and Li says it's just a normalization convention, of course that assumes that the integral is finite.
Is this just a matter of definition, or is there a better reason that that?
And would any of this relate to the exterior calculus, since I believe Grassmann algebra is an example of (or is) exterior albegra.
Thanks very much !
Cheng and Li says it's just a normalization convention, of course that assumes that the integral is finite.
Is this just a matter of definition, or is there a better reason that that?
And would any of this relate to the exterior calculus, since I believe Grassmann algebra is an example of (or is) exterior albegra.
Thanks very much !