Riam
Dec3-11, 01:28 PM
Please I need your help in this question. I don't know how to answer it.
The question: Show that X \subset \Re^n has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0 there exists an infinite sequence of balls
B_i ={ x \in R^n| |x-a_i | < r_i} with \sum < ε such that X \subset \cup_{i=1} ^\infty B_i
The question: Show that X \subset \Re^n has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0 there exists an infinite sequence of balls
B_i ={ x \in R^n| |x-a_i | < r_i} with \sum < ε such that X \subset \cup_{i=1} ^\infty B_i