Why Can't I Solve This Multivariable Calculus Integral?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around solving a multivariable calculus integral involving iterated integrals and the use of trigonometric identities and integration techniques. Participants are attempting to evaluate the integral \(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} dx \int_{0}^{Sec(x)} y^3 dy\) and are sharing their approaches and challenges in arriving at the answer.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses difficulty in obtaining the answer of \(1/3\) for the integral.
  • Another participant claims to have solved it and invites the first to show their work to identify errors.
  • Several participants reference a specific integration formula for \(\int sec^n u\) and claim to arrive at \(1/3\) using it.
  • One participant mentions using integration by parts and expresses frustration with the method, indicating a tendency to get stuck.
  • Another participant suggests using substitution and identities instead of integration by parts, proposing a different approach to simplify the integral.
  • There are multiple mentions of using \(u = \tan(x)\) as a substitution to evaluate the integral.
  • Some participants correct each other’s setups and calculations, but no consensus on the best method emerges.
  • One participant acknowledges a mistake in their notation and arrives at the correct answer after reevaluation.
  • Another participant expresses a desire for a clearer explanation of integration by parts, indicating ongoing confusion.
  • At least one participant concludes they have arrived at the correct answer, while others continue to explore different methods.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the integral evaluates to \(1/3\), but there is no consensus on the best method to arrive at that answer. Various approaches are discussed, and some participants express confusion or frustration with certain techniques.

Contextual Notes

Some participants mention specific integration techniques and substitutions, but there are unresolved issues regarding the effectiveness of integration by parts versus substitution methods. The discussion reflects varying levels of familiarity with the techniques involved.

Who May Find This Useful

Students and individuals studying multivariable calculus, particularly those interested in integration techniques and trigonometric identities.

brendan_foo
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I am reading a book on multivariable calculus for my course and I have tried the question :

[tex] <br /> \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} dx \int_{0}^{Sec(x)} y^3 dy<br /> [/tex]

apparently the answer is 1/3..I have TRIED to get this answer... yet i cannot yield 1/3...help!

(anyone from the UK...I have a good A Level in maths {up to P3 for Pure and M3 for mechanics, grade A...i know iterated integrals but this one stumps me}...arse :))
 
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I worked it out and got 1/3. Show your work so that I can show you where you've gone wrong.
 
Are you using the formula

[tex]\int sec^n u = \frac{1}{n-1}tgu \ sec^{n-2}u+\frac{n-2}{n-1}\int sec^{n-2}udu[/tex]

?

Using this on [itex]sec^{4}x[/itex], I get 1/3 too.
 
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quasar987 said:
Are you using the formula

[tex]\int sec^n u = \frac{1}{n-1}tgu \ sec^{n-2}u+\frac{n-2}{n-1}\int sec^{n-2}udu[/tex]

?

Using this on [itex]sec^{4}x[/itex], I get 1/3 too.

You can do the problem with integration by parts.
 
I have never seen that formula before ever :)...

naturally i established the first integral, and ended up with

[tex] <br /> \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}sec^4 (x) dx[/tex]
however beyond this i begin to lame up... doing it by parts usually ends up in misery and i usually end up going around in circles.

[tex] <br /> \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}(sec^2 (x))(sec^2 (x)) dx[/tex]

Would this suffice in the first instance, and take it from parts there on in..

BK Flamer :cry:
 
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brendan_foo said:
I have never seen that formula before ever :)...

naturally i established the first integral, and ended up with

[tex] <br /> \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}sec^4 (x) dx[/tex]
however beyond this i begin to lame up... doing it by parts usually ends up in misery and i usually end up going around in circles.

[tex] <br /> \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}(sec^2 (x))(sec^2 (x)) dx[/tex]

Would this suffice in the first instance, and take it from parts there on in..

BK Flamer :cry:

Yes. Set [tex]u=sec^2(x)[/tex] and [tex]dv=sec^2(x)dx[/tex]

You only have to do integration by parts this one time... continue, and tell us where you get stuck...
 
If sec is raised to an even power, you can simply do it using substitution and identities. That's how I did it, and also got 1/3. You're second step is correct, now let u=tan(x). Anything?
 
Doing it as we speak...hang on guys... :D
 
ok so I've said :

[tex] <br /> u = \sec^2(x) \quad \quad<br /> \frac{du}{dx} = 2\sec^2 (x) \tan(x) \quad \quad<br /> <br /> \frac {dv}{dx} = sec^2 (x) \quad \quad<br /> v = \tan (x)<br /> [/tex]

So therefore, by parts, the integral {excluding constants and what not for simplicities sake}

[tex] <br /> \int (sec^2 (x))(sec^2 (x)) dx = sec^2 (x)tan (x) - 2\int sec^2 (x) (tan^2 (x)) dx<br /> [/tex]

Or have I made a right boob-up?
 
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  • #10
I believe you meant

[tex] u = \sec^2(x)[/tex]

But you derived it correctly, so I'll assume that was a typo. Otherwise, your setup looks right to me. I'm going to go ahead and post how I would have done it without integrating by parts, since parts seems to be the preferred method right now.
 
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  • #11
brendan_foo said:
ok so I've said :

[tex] <br /> u = \sec(x) \quad \quad<br /> \frac{du}{dx} = 2\sec^2 (x) \tan(x) \quad \quad<br /> <br /> \frac {dv}{dx} = sec^2 (x) \quad \quad<br /> v = \tan (x)<br /> [/tex]

So therefore, by parts, the integral {excluding constants and what not for simplicities sake}

[tex] <br /> \int (sec^2 (x))(sec^2 (x)) dx = sec^2 (x)tan (x) - 2\int sec^2 (x) (tan^2 (x)) dx<br /> [/tex]

Or have I made a right boob-up?

Everything is correct. Just integrate [tex]sec^2(x)tan^2(x)dx[/tex]. Have a look at it for a while... hint: use the fact that [tex]sec^2(x)[/tex] is the derivative of [tex]tan(x)[/tex]
 
  • #12
So i try to evaluate that other integral, by parts too... the :

[tex] \int sec^2 (x) (tan^2 (x)) dx[/tex]

if someone would give me a guide as to how many times I am going to need to do this repeated parts thingy then I won't be so scared ;) :smile:

[tex]u = \tan^2(x) \quad \quad\frac{du}{dx} = 2\tan (x) \sec^2(x) \quad \quad\frac {dv}{dx} = sec^2 (x) \quad \quad v = \tan (x)[/tex]

Ok so far??...i still get the feeling that its not going to terminate anytime soon
 
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  • #13
brendan_foo said:
So i try to evaluate that other integral, by parts too... the :

[tex] \int sec^2 (x) (tan^2 (x)) dx[/tex]

if someone would give me a guide as to how many times I am going to need to do this repeated parts thingy then I won't be so scared ;) :smile:

Not integration by parts here: I'll do a variable substitution here: let [tex]y=tan(x)[/tex] so [tex]dy=sec^2(x)dx[/tex] so, I can rewrite your integral as:

[tex]\int y^2dy[/tex]

which becomes

[tex](1/3)y^3=(1/3)tan^3(x)[/tex]
 
  • #14
Oooh yeah! :D ha god dammit I am a fool... Could someone show it to me by parts too, cos it was that method that was murdering me.

:rolleyes: :-p
 
  • #15
Without integrating by parts, using only a trig identity and variable substitution:

[tex] \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}(sec^2 (x))(sec^2 (x)) dx<br /> =\frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}(tan^2 (x)+1)(sec^2 (x)) dx[/tex]

Letting [tex]u=tan(x); du=sec^2(x)dx[/tex]

We have
[tex] \frac{1}{4}\int(u^2 +1)du<br /> =\frac{1}{4}(\frac{1}{3}u^3 +u|<br /> =(\frac{1}{12}tan^3 (x)+\frac{1}{4}tan(x)|_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}<br /> =\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Seems easier to me.
 
  • #16
Most definatly...

HOWEVER :D...

due to my sloppy notation and consumption of beer, i was missing out something that was so so simple.

After careful considering, i arrived at the integral :


[tex] <br /> \frac{1}{4}(sec^2 (x) tan (x) - \frac{2}{3} tan^3 (x))<br /> [/tex]

And when the limits are put in I do believe it yields 1/3...

I am therefore a boob! :smile:
 
  • #17
t!m said:
Without integrating by parts, using only a trig identity and variable substitution:

[tex] \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}(sec^2 (x))(sec^2 (x)) dx<br /> =\frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}(tan^2 (x)+1)(sec^2 (x)) dx[/tex]

Letting [tex]u=tan(x); du=sec^2(x)dx[/tex]

We have
[tex] \frac{1}{4}\int(u^2 +1)du<br /> =\frac{1}{4}(\frac{1}{3}u^3 +u|<br /> =(\frac{1}{12}tan^3 (x)+\frac{1}{4}tan(x)|_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}<br /> =\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Seems easier to me.

You're right! I didn't see the identity.
 
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  • #18
brendan_foo said:
I am therefore a boob! :smile:

That's alright. I'm a boob too! :rolleyes: Hopefully us boobs can still find the right answer going about it the hard way!
 
  • #19
Thanks all who gave advice...much appreciate

Merry christmas all...

:biggrin: :biggrin: :smile:
 

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