Proving John Machin's Formula for Arctan Difference

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving John Machin's formula for the difference of arctangents, specifically the identity \(\arctan x - \arctan y = \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy}\) under the condition that \(xy \neq -1\) and the left side lies within the interval \(-\pi/2\) to \(\pi/2\). Participants are exploring the mathematical properties of arctangent and tangent functions in relation to this identity.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using series expansions for arctangent and tangent functions, as well as trigonometric identities to approach the proof. There is a suggestion to simplify the problem using trigonometric properties instead of calculus. Some participants express uncertainty about the clarity of the problem statement and the implications of the term "show."

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering different perspectives on how to approach the proof. Some have provided insights into using trigonometric identities, while others are working through series expansions. There is no explicit consensus yet, but various lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of the problem, including the conditions under which the identity holds true and the implications of the interval specified for the arctangent function. There is also mention of the historical context of John Machin's formula and its significance in calculating \(\pi\).

DivGradCurl
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I'm a bit puzzled by this problem, which involves the John Machin's formula. Here it goes:

Show that for [tex]xy \neq -1[/tex],

[tex]\arctan x - \arctan y = \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy}[/tex]

ïf the left side lies between [tex]-\pi /2[/tex] and [tex]\pi /2[/tex].

By the way, John Machin's formula is:

[tex]4 \arctan \frac{1}{5} - \arctan \frac{1}{239} = \arctan \frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]

He used this to find [tex]\pi[/tex] correct to 100 decimal places.

Anyhow, here is what I've done so far:

If

[tex]\arctan x = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{x^{2n+1}}{2n+1}[/tex]

[tex]\arctan y = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{y^{2n+1}}{2n+1}[/tex]

[tex]\arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy} = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{\left( \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \right)^{2n+1}}{2n+1}[/tex]

Then

[tex]\sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{\left( x^{2n+1} - y^{2n+1}\right)}{2n+1} = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n \frac{\left( \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \right)^{2n+1}}{2n+1}[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]x^{2n+1} - y^{2n+1} = \left( \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \right)^{2n+1}[/tex]

I'm not sure I am on the right path. Maybe, I simply need to pick a couple of values to demonstrate that the given relationship is true, but it feels like it might not be enough. In other words, "show" up there looks a bit ambiguous. Any help is highly appreciated.

Thanks
 
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My friend,why use calculus to get nowhere,when u can use (circular) trigonometry to prove in an elegant way?
Take "tan"out both sides of your identity and use what i'll write below:
[tex]\tan(a-b)=:\frac{\sin(a-b)}{\cos(a-b)}=\frac{\sin a\cos b-\sin b\cos a}{\cos a\cos b+\sin a\sin b}[/tex]

Simplify the last fraction through the product of 'cosines' to find the celebrated formula
[tex]\tan(a-b)=\frac{\tan a-\tan b}{1+\tan a\tan b}[/tex]
Substitute in the last identity:
[tex]a\rightarrow \arctan x;b\rightarrow \arctan y[/tex]
,make use of the fact that "tan",on the interval give in the problem is a uniform function and get exactly the formula u would get if taking "tan" from the identity u need to prove.

Daniel.

PS.Trigonometry is beauty... :approve:
 
Thanks for your input, Daniel.

Let me see if I understand it...

[tex]\arctan x - \arctan y = \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \qquad (1)[/tex]​

[tex]x - y = \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \qquad (2)[/tex]​

[tex]\tan \left( x - y \right) = \tan \left( \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \right) \qquad (3)[/tex]​

[tex]\tan \left( x - y \right) = \frac{\sin \left( x - y \right)}{\cos \left( x - y \right)} \qquad (4)[/tex]​

[tex]\tan \left( x - y \right) = \frac{\sin x \cos y - \cos x \sin y}{\cos x \cos y + \sin x \sin y} \qquad (5)[/tex]​

[tex]\tan \left( x - y \right) = \left( \frac{\frac{1}{\cos x \cos y}}{\frac{1}{\cos x \cos y}} \right) \frac{\sin x \cos y - \cos x \sin y}{\cos x \cos y + \sin x \sin y} \qquad (6)[/tex]​

[tex]\tan \left( x - y \right) = \frac{\tan x - \tan y}{1 + \tan x \tan y} \qquad (7)[/tex]​

[tex]\arctan x - \arctan y = \arctan \frac{x-y}{1+xy} \qquad (8)[/tex]​
 
U didn't. :-p I can't explain in another way the bunch of c*** at numbers (2) and (3)...

Formulas (4) pp.(7) give a proof for the trigonometrical identity that can be used to prove your identity.I stated that proof just to let u know i didn't invent it nor rediscovered it hundreds of years later.

I said to apply tangent on both sides of your identity:
[tex]\tan(\arctan x-\arctan y) =\tan[\arctan(\frac{x-y}{1+xy})][/tex]

`Work the left hand side using the formula I've given proof:
[tex]\tan(\arctan x-\arctan y) =\frac{\tan(\arctan x)-\tan(\arctan y)}{1+\tan(\arctan x)\tan(\arctan y)}=\frac{x-y}{1+xy}[/tex] (1)

Work the right hand side:
[tex]\tan[\arctan(\frac{x-y}{1+xy})] =\frac{x-y}{1+xy}[/tex] (2)

Interpretation of the relations (1) and (2) is that you have shown that:
[tex]\tan A=C (1') \tan B=C (2')[/tex](3)
From (3) it follows immediately
[tex]\tan A=\tan B[/tex] (4)
From (4) and from tha fact that on the interval [itex](-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})[/itex] the function "tan" is a uniform/surjective function,u get that
[tex]A=B[/tex] (5)
,which is nothing but your identity in symbolic form.

Daniel.
 
Oh... I now see what you mean. Thank you.
 

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