Proving that d=gcd(a,b) iff 1=gcd(a1,b1)

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that \( d = \text{gcd}(a, b) \) if and only if \( 1 = \text{gcd}(a_1, b_1) \), where \( a = a_1 \cdot d \) and \( b = b_1 \cdot d \). Participants explore the implications of the definitions of gcd and provide various approaches to the proof. Key points include using the properties of divisibility and the relationship between gcd and linear combinations of integers. The theorem stating that if \( d = \text{gcd}(a, b) \), then there exist integers \( x \) and \( y \) such that \( d = ax + by \) is also referenced as a foundational concept in the proof.

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  • Familiarity with integer linear combinations and divisibility
  • Knowledge of basic number theory theorems related to gcd
  • Ability to manipulate algebraic expressions involving integers
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mathrocks
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I'm having trouble with gcd proofs in general, but here is a specific problem.

Let a and b be integers, not both zero, and let d be a positive integer that divides both a and b. Then there exists a1 and b1 such that a=a1*d and b=b1*d.
Prove that d=gcd(a,b) if and only if 1=gcd(a1,b1)

What I have so far:

Pf: Let a and b be integers and since d|a and d|b then d|gcd(a,b) by definition. So let d*k=gcd(a,b) for some integer k. Then dk=ma+nb where m,n are integers. (I'm not sure if I can do that last statement). Now dk=m(a1*d)+n(b1*d) where a=a1*d and b=b1*d. So dk=d(m*a1+n*b1) and therefore d|(m*a1+n*b1) ...

I'm not sure if I'm heading in the right direction, but after that point I don't know how to get to 1=gcd(a1,b1).

For the second part of the proof I have"

Now assume a and b are integers such that 1=gcd(a1,b1). So there exists m and n that are integers such that 1=ma1+nb1. (Now I multiple by a integer d). Then d=md*a1 + nd*b1, and d=ma+nb where a1*d=a and b1*d=b.

Again, I'm stuck after this point.
 
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I think you're making it far too complicated.

Let's do this way: suppose that gcd(a1,b1)=e and e is different from 1. Then a1=ea2 and b1=eb2 for some integers a2 and b2, then a=a2ed, and b=b2ed.

So, if d is the gcd, then e cannot be different from 1 as claimed, or de divides both a and b.

For the second part, if ass ume gcd(a1,b1)=1 we can indeed conclude that d=am+bn, but this tells us that gcd(m,n) divides d, since the gcd divides the terms on the right. So d is less than gcd(a,b) since it is some divisor of a and b, and is also divisible by the gcd so it must equal the gcd.
 
This was mathrocks' question: [tex]a,b \in Z[/tex] [tex]a,b \neq 0[/tex], and [tex]d=gcd(a,b)[/tex]. If [tex]a=da_1[/tex] and [tex]b=db_1[/tex] for some [tex]a_1, b_1 \in Z[/tex] then you want to show that [tex]gcd(a_1,b_1) = 1[/tex].

I can't follow matt grime's proof but I know that there is a theorem which states:

Let [tex]d=gcd(a,b)[/tex]. Then there exists integers x and y such that [tex]d=ax+by[/tex].

I want to know how we can prove the problem above using this theorem.

[tex]d=gcd(a,b)[/tex]

[tex]d=ax + by[/tex] and since [tex]a=da_1[/tex] and [tex]b=db_1[/tex],

[tex]d=(da_1)x + (db_1)y = (dx)a_1 + (dy)b_1[/tex]

I'm stuck at this point. Can anyone help please?
 

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