Taylor Series for Showing B_{x}(x+dx)-B_{x}(x) Approximation

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around using Taylor series to approximate the difference between the magnetic field component \( B_{x}(x+dx,y,z) \) and \( B_{x}(x,y,z) \). Participants are exploring the mathematical formulation and implications of this approximation in the context of vector calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to clarify the application of the Taylor series and questions how to express \( B(x+dx) \) in relation to \( B(x) \). Other participants discuss the notation and the intended approximation, with some suggesting that the approximation is valid only under certain conditions.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the Taylor series approach and its limitations. There is recognition that the approximation is intended rather than exact, and some clarification on notation is being sought. Multiple interpretations of the problem are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating issues related to notation and the assumptions underlying the Taylor series expansion. There is an acknowledgment that the approximation is not universally applicable and that it is context-dependent.

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How do i show that B_{x}(x+dx,y,z)-B_{x}(x,y,z)\approx \frac{\partial B_{x}(x,y,z)}{\partial x} dx
using a Taylor series to the first term. Using a Taylor series does B(x) = B(a) + B'(a)(x-a)? In that case what would B(x+dx) be and how can i obtain the desired result from this? Thanks in advance
 
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What's all that crazy text? Meant for the notation style thing they have here? I can't read it worth a darn like it is O_o
 
Ye it was a poor attempt at it. Its supposed to be Bx(x+dx,y,z)-Bx(x,y,z)=dBx/dx dxdydz
 
I take it you mean [tex]B_x(x+dx,y,z)- B_x(x,y,z)= \frac{\partial B_x}{/partial dx}dxdydz[/tex]. I also assume that this is the x-component of a 3-vector.

You can't "prove" it- it's not true- except approximately which is what is intended here. The "Taylor series to the first term" is just the tangent approximation to Bx. Yes, at any given (x0, y0, z0) that is [tex]B_x(x_0,y_0,z_0)+ \frac{\partial B_0}{\partial x}(x_0,y_0,z_0)*(x- x_0)+ +\frac{\partial B_0}{\partial y}(x_0,y_0,z_0)*(y- y_0)+\frac{\partial B_0}{\partial z}(x_0,y_0,z_0)*(z- z_0)[/tex].

Now, evaluate that at (x,y,z)= (x0, y0, z0) and at (x,y,z)= (x0+ dx, y0, z0) and subtract.
 

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