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let [tex]f:U \rightarrow R^n[/tex] be a differentiable function with a differentiable inverse [tex]f^{-1}: f(u) \rightarrow R^n[/tex]. if every closed form on U is exact, show that the same is true for f(U).
Hint: if dw=0 and [tex]f^{\star}w = d\eta,[/tex] consider [tex](f^{-1})^{\star}\eta.[/tex]
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I'm not quite sure what the hint means or how to use it. is it true that [tex]f^{\star}[/tex] is basically another way of writing a differential - eg. df? I didn't really get a clear definition of it in my text.
anyway here's my thoughts so far:
consider [tex]w[/tex] as a form on U. suppose [tex]w[/tex] is closed. then dw = 0. since every closed form on U is exact, then there exists a [tex]\eta[/tex] on U such that [tex]w = d\eta[/tex].
but how is it that [tex]f^{\star}w = d\eta[/tex] (given in the hint)? like, how is this relationship derived? if [tex]w = d\eta[/tex] and also [tex]f^{\star}w = d\eta[/tex], then we have [tex]w = f^{\star}w[/tex]? I find that really confusing, and I'm not sure how to continue the problem. Any help is greatly appreciated. thanks in advance!
Hint: if dw=0 and [tex]f^{\star}w = d\eta,[/tex] consider [tex](f^{-1})^{\star}\eta.[/tex]
---------------------------------------------------
I'm not quite sure what the hint means or how to use it. is it true that [tex]f^{\star}[/tex] is basically another way of writing a differential - eg. df? I didn't really get a clear definition of it in my text.
anyway here's my thoughts so far:
consider [tex]w[/tex] as a form on U. suppose [tex]w[/tex] is closed. then dw = 0. since every closed form on U is exact, then there exists a [tex]\eta[/tex] on U such that [tex]w = d\eta[/tex].
but how is it that [tex]f^{\star}w = d\eta[/tex] (given in the hint)? like, how is this relationship derived? if [tex]w = d\eta[/tex] and also [tex]f^{\star}w = d\eta[/tex], then we have [tex]w = f^{\star}w[/tex]? I find that really confusing, and I'm not sure how to continue the problem. Any help is greatly appreciated. thanks in advance!