Integrating the function 1/x^2. Something I don't understand

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the function f(x) = 1/x², specifically addressing the evaluation of the integral from -1 to 1. Participants are exploring the implications of the function's behavior near a discontinuity at x = 0.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question the validity of the integral over the interval [-1, 1] given the discontinuity at x = 0. There is confusion regarding the expected outcome of the integral, with some suggesting it should diverge to +∞.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights regarding the nature of improper integrals and the discontinuity affecting the integration process. There is acknowledgment of the misunderstanding, but no explicit consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the integral involves a discontinuity, which complicates the evaluation and leads to the classification of the integral as improper.

VietDao29
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While integrating the function [tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{x ^ 2}[/tex], I came across something I don't understand:
[tex]\int \frac{1}{x ^ 2}dx = - \frac{1}{x} + C[/tex]
Let [tex]f(x) := \frac{1}{x ^ 2}[/tex]
[tex]f(x) > 0, \forall x \in \mathbb{R}[/tex]
[tex]\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)dx = -1 - (-(-1)) = -2[/tex]:confused:
Why this happened? :confused: It's obvious that [tex]f(x) > 0, \forall x \in \mathbb{R}[/tex] and -1 < 1, but why [tex]\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)dx < 0[/tex]
:confused:
I think it should be : [tex]\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)dx = + \infty[/tex]
What have I done wrong? :cry:
Viet Dao,
 
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VietDao29 said:
While integrating the function [tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{x ^ 2}[/tex], I came across something I don't understand:
[tex]\int \frac{1}{x ^ 2}dx = - \frac{1}{x} + C[/tex]
Let [tex]f(x) := \frac{1}{x ^ 2}[/tex]
[tex]f(x) > 0, \forall x \in \mathbb{R}[/tex]
[tex]\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)dx = -1 - (-(-1)) = -2[/tex]:confused:
Why this happened? :confused: It's obvious that [tex]f(x) > 0, \forall x \in \mathbb{R}[/tex] and -1 < 1, but why [tex]\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)dx < 0[/tex]
:confused:
I think it should be : [tex]\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)dx = + \infty[/tex]
What have I done wrong? :cry:
Viet Dao,

It's an improper integral.
 
Last edited:
VietDao29 said:
...I think it should be : [tex]\int_{-1}^{1}f(x)dx = + \infty[/tex]
What have I done wrong? :cry:
Viet Dao,
There's a discontinuity in f(x) at x = 0.

You can't integrate over a range that includes a discontituity.
 
The fundamental theorem does not hold as 1/x^2 is not continuous at x=0. It is also an improper integral that does not converge in the traditional sense.
 
Last edited:
Yup, thanks for the help. I see what I missed now. :smile:
Viet Dao,
 

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