Proving $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{n!}{n^n} = 0$ - Tutoring Maths Resits

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{n!}{n^n} = 0$, which is a requirement for a math resit. Participants explore various approaches and reasoning related to this limit, including the use of inequalities and Stirling's approximation.

Discussion Character

  • Homework-related
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests splitting the limit into parts that approach zero and parts that are bounded.
  • Another participant mentions that Stirling's formula or approximation could be a valid method for proving the limit.
  • A different participant expresses concern that using Stirling's formula may be too advanced for the material expected to be known by the student.
  • One participant attempts to provide a reasoning approach by analyzing the limit and breaking it down into factors, concluding that the limit approaches zero.
  • Another participant reiterates the reasoning involving the factors, indicating that the expression within the limit is less than one for sufficiently large \( n \).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the best method to prove the limit. There are differing opinions on the appropriateness of Stirling's approximation and the clarity of the reasoning provided.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the proof methods and the level of mathematical knowledge required for the student. There are also indications that the reasoning provided may not be fully rigorous.

Zurtex
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I'm doing some tutoring tomorrow morning for a girl who needs to do some maths resits. I was looking through the papers and you need to prove that:

[tex]n^{n-1} \geq n! \quad \forall n > 1 \; \text{and} \; n \in \mathbb{N}[/tex]

Which is fine, but it asks to you to do it by proving by definition that:

[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{n!}{n^n} = 0[/tex]

And I have to admit that I can't quite remember how to do this one, if someone could point me in the right direction that would be great, I remember seeing a proof for it so I'm sure it'll come back to me.
 
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Split it into a part that obviously goes to zero, and a part that is obviously bounded!
 
iNCREDiBLE said:
Too far ahead for the material she is expected to know and my brain isn't working at the moment, I don't know what you mean Hurkyl
 
I doubt this would pass as a proof, but here 1/n goes to zero and the second limit has an equal number of factors in the nominator as denominator. The highest factors are equal (n) but in the nominator, they decrease while they don't in the denominator.

[tex]\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{{n!}}{{n^n }} = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{{n!}}{{n \cdot n^{n - 1} }} = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{1}{n}\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{{n!}}{{n^{n - 1} }} = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{1}{n}\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{{\overbrace {n \cdot \left( {n - 1} \right) \cdot \ldots \cdot 2}^{n - 1}}}{{\underbrace {n \cdot n \cdot \ldots \cdot n}_{n - 1}}}=0[/tex]
 
[tex] \left( \frac{n \cdot (n-1) ... 2} {n \cdot n ... n} \right) \frac{1} {n}[/tex]

The stuff in the big brackets is less greater than zero and less than 1 for n > 2.

Regards,
George
 

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