uart
Nov27-03, 06:44 AM
Hi, I have a conjecture and I am not sure whether it is true. I can't construct a counter example but perhaps someone more mathemetically resourceful than myself can do so (or perhaps even offer a direct proof or disproof).
Here's the conjecture.
Let X_n = r_1 \, r_2 \, r_3 \, ... \, r_n, be a product of n rational fractions (r_i) , such that, for each n in [1,2,3 …] the numerator of X_n has at least one prime factor (uncancelled of course) greater than n.
Conjecture : If the limit as n goes to infinity of X_n is finite then it (the limit) is irrational.
If you cant find a counter-example (or direct proof or disproof) then what does your mathematical "intuition" think about it, do you think it's probably true or probably false.
Thankyou. :)
Here's the conjecture.
Let X_n = r_1 \, r_2 \, r_3 \, ... \, r_n, be a product of n rational fractions (r_i) , such that, for each n in [1,2,3 …] the numerator of X_n has at least one prime factor (uncancelled of course) greater than n.
Conjecture : If the limit as n goes to infinity of X_n is finite then it (the limit) is irrational.
If you cant find a counter-example (or direct proof or disproof) then what does your mathematical "intuition" think about it, do you think it's probably true or probably false.
Thankyou. :)