Proving the moment of inerta of a sphere: can someone help me please?

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The discussion focuses on proving the moment of inertia of a sphere using integral calculus. The formula presented is I = (3m/r^3) * ∫(from 0 to r) (x^3)((r^2) - (x^2))^(1/2) dx, where r is the radius and x is the axis. A more effective approach suggested involves using spherical coordinates, specifically x = ρ cos(θ) sin(φ) and dV = ρ^2 sin(φ) dρ dθ dφ, leading to the integral I = ρ ∫(from φ=0 to π) ∫(from θ=0 to 2π) ∫(from ρ=0 to R) ρ^4 cos^2(θ) sin^3(φ) dρ dθ dφ. This method simplifies the calculation of the moment of inertia.

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I'm having a difficulty in proving the moment of inertia of a sphere.
Using I=p(x^2)dv, we have to show that

I = (3m/r^3) * the integral (from 0 to r) of (x^3)((r^2) - (x^2))^(1/2) dx

where r=radius, x=the axis

I've been trying to prove it and yet no success. if anyone can show me how to do it, i'd greatly appreciate that.
thanks a lot
 
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It would seem more reasonable to me to use spherical coordinates:
[tex]x= \rhocos(\theta)sin(\phi)[/tex] and [tex]dV= \rho^2 sin(\phi)d\rho\d\thetad\phi[/tex]
[tex]\int\rho x^2dV= p\int_{\phi=0}^\pi\int_{\theta= 0}^{2\pi}\int_{\rho= 0}^R(\rho^3cos^2(\theta)sin^3(\phi)d\rhod\thetad\phi[/tex]

(oops! Thanks, Fermat.)
 
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HallsofIvy said:
It would seem more reasonable to me to use spherical coordinates:
[tex]x= \rho cos(\theta)sin(\phi)[/tex] and [tex]dV= \rho^2 sin(\phi)d\rho d\theta d\phi[/tex]
[tex]\int\rho x^2\ dV= \rho\int_{\phi=0}^\pi\int_{\theta= 0}^{2\pi}\int_{\rho= 0}^R \rho^4cos^2(\theta)sin^3(\phi) d\rho d\theta d\phi[/tex]

Ah, now I can see what it says :smile:
 
Last edited:

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