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Palindrom
Nov13-05, 11:17 AM
Suppose h and h o f are both C^infty on f(U) and U correspondingly, with U an open set. Assume now that f(U) is open. Is f C^infty on U? Does anyone have a counter example?

I've edited the question so that it would actually make sense.

mathwonk
Nov13-05, 12:18 PM
trivially false. take h constant.

Palindrom
Nov13-05, 12:36 PM
How very stupid of me. Thank you.