Palindrom
Nov13-05, 11:17 AM
Suppose h and h o f are both C^infty on f(U) and U correspondingly, with U an open set. Assume now that f(U) is open. Is f C^infty on U? Does anyone have a counter example?
I've edited the question so that it would actually make sense.
I've edited the question so that it would actually make sense.