additionl field proportional to magnetisation?
Magnetisation of a sample is net dipole moment per unit volume i.e. M = m(net) / V
It turns out that magnetic field due to the material is proportional to magnetisation
i.e. B(magnetic field due to material) = μM
Any explanation to this? It should be proportional but any proof for this or is it just experimental
hi jd12345! :smile:
M and H are measured in electric units, as electric current/distance (Am-1),
(magnetic dipole moment is charge times distance/time, = distance times charge/time = distance times electric current, in A.m)
but B is measured in magnetic units, as magnetic flux/area (Wb.m-2)
there's no fundamental reason for this … they're all the same thing! :rolleyes: … it's just more convenient in practice! :biggrin:
so to convert between these different species of units, we must have a universal conversion factor, and that's µo (in Wb.A-1m-1 or T.m.A-1) :wink:
µ (as opposed to µo) is just a trick to make it look as if B is proportional to H on its own
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