View Single Post
SeReNiTy
SeReNiTy is offline
#1
Nov13-06, 09:50 PM
P: 171
Hey guys, I was doing some questions from spivak when i noticed this integral he set up. To prove that the integral is [tex] \pi/2 [/tex] for all values of x, i needed to prove [tex] Arctan(x) + Arctan(\frac{1}{x}) = \pi/2 [/tex] for all values of x. Just wondering what is the most elegant proof of this?
Phys.Org News Partner Mathematics news on Phys.org
Math modeling handbook now available
Hyperbolic homogeneous polynomials, oh my!
Researchers help Boston Marathon organizers plan for 2014 race