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SeReNiTy
#1
Nov13-06, 09:50 PM
P: 171
Hey guys, I was doing some questions from spivak when i noticed this integral he set up. To prove that the integral is [tex] \pi/2 [/tex] for all values of x, i needed to prove [tex] Arctan(x) + Arctan(\frac{1}{x}) = \pi/2 [/tex] for all values of x. Just wondering what is the most elegant proof of this?
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