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Moose352
Moose352 is offline
#1
Jan4-04, 07:34 PM
P: 166
I got a little confused thinking about this. Consider a ball attatched to a (massless) rod. This system is to be accelerate about the free end of the rod. From what I know, the moment of inertia for this system would simply be the mr^2, since this is the same case as a free ball being accelerated at the same rate. However, it seems to me that the ball is also rotating around its own axis (since it is fixed on the rod), and thus wouldn't the force necessary for the same rate of acceleration be greater?
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