View Single Post
Mar16-07, 04:15 PM
P: 213
Quote Quote by matt grime View Post
I am not shutting you down, but as this thread has progressed, it has become clear that you are not familiar with the 3n+1 conjecture. The conjecture has turned out to be satsified for every starting value that people have tried (and thus it is unlikely that you will ever find any starting value that does anything other than eventually reach 1 and enter the trivial loop).
I already explained some time ago that it is new to me and i wanted to play with it until i get bored about it. As i said then why don't you tell me what you know so that i don't have to make redundant or meaningless search and so that i can progress faster and so that i know when to give up.

It is a conjecture that it alway hits 1. No one has been able to prove it or disprove it, but many have spent years trying. I am trying to make you aware o that.
Well that's good thing to know that it always hist 1 but then check it with negative numbers then you will see that it never hit 1.

again, I am not telling you not to do this. If you want, go ahead. My belief is that you would learn more if you investigated other things. Possibly including things that others have not thought of. As it is all you seem to be doing is just iterating things and either hitting 1 or going beyond the capability of your computer to do integer arithmetic. This is precisely what you could have predicted without doing any work by meta-reasoning.
I am thankful for your concerns but once in a while everyone have a hobby. Some watch tv others read books, i am just making a research and learning new things on the way.

this has nothing to do with randomness. If you attempt to prove a problem in a model that is undecidable you will never succeed. Nor can you succeed in showing its negation. If tou could show that the 3n+1 conjecture is undecidable that would be important.
Ok, rather that just telling me that it is wrong, why don't you explain the word to me with simple words and examples so that i can understand it better? It is not that i didn't ask you to explain it.

I said that non-trivial intermediate loops should be those that do not contain 1 in them. The existence, or non-existence of them, is what the conjecture is about.
Well, then negative numbers would be example of it. And from wikipedia: "n mathematics, a conjecture is a mathematical statement which appears likely to be true, but has not been formally proven to be true under the rules of mathematical logic." So like you said, 1 is likely to be true but since it is a value from the infinite sets. I can't prove with with 1 but like i said that your statement of it being trivial is 'True'. I didn't deny it.