 Quote by willib
wouldent that be the integral from -infinity to infinity of 1/Y dx..
since you are revolving around the x axis...
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No, the formula for the surface area is S=2π∫r(x)[1+(f'(x))
2]dx.
Teclo,
The integral is pretty easy if you do it by parts. Start from:
∫(1+x
4)
1/2/x
3dx
and let u=(1+x
4)
1/2 and dv=dx/x
3.