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deluks917
#1
Nov24-11, 03:30 AM
P: 367
Let f: R->R. If f is infinitely differentiable and analytic on a dense set is f analytic? Is this true if we restric f to [0,1]?

note: by analytic I mean the radius of convergence of the taylor expansion is non-zero about every point.

Maybe this is simple but I was thinking about it and can't figure it out
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