, thanks for sharing.
The third question is very interesting actually haha.
I agree with you, when you are dealing with an infinite amount of numbers then it would be 0. But what about a finite amount of numbers? Can a number occur with 0 probability, such that n is a finite number [in this case let us limit n to a world consisting only of 50 digits].
Hey, thanks for the reply.
To me probability rings to my neurons as a tendency to become a value over a period of time or over n times. But that is just my definition of course. If we take this definition in that context, then perhaps a probability of 0 would imply that it has 0 tendency to become any value over a period of time or n times. But then I guess this doesn't hold true in the mathematical context.
I wonder, if something has 0 probability in Quantum Mechanics, can it happen? I suppose it can, which would support your statement.