The *only* difference is the weapon?!
How about aggressive intent and assault?
How about long-lasting and scarring emotional and possibly physical trauma caused to the victim(s)?
To disregard all this is far sillier!
And to assert that "no such difference" exists between theft and copyright infringement? That's just as silly! I've already made a long post detailing why I think no exact parallel can be drawn between the victim(s) of theft and the "victim(s)" of copyright infringement. I don't like repeating myself, so feel free to re-read that at your leisure.
And please stop *your* silliness. There is no way you can convince a rational, objective party (i.e. one not brainwashed by the massive disinformation campaign in the media) that theft and copyright infringement are the same thing.