View Single Post
MostlyConfusd
#1
Mar11-12, 12:51 AM
P: 3
Someone told me Euler proved that there are infinitely many prime numbers by proving that the sum of their reciprocals is infinite.

I have one concern. How can you prove the infinitude of primes by this method without assuming the set to be infinite in the first place.
Phys.Org News Partner Science news on Phys.org
Sapphire talk enlivens guesswork over iPhone 6
Geneticists offer clues to better rice, tomato crops
UConn makes 3-D copies of antique instrument parts