View Single Post
MostlyConfusd is offline
Mar11-12, 12:51 AM
P: 3
Someone told me Euler proved that there are infinitely many prime numbers by proving that the sum of their reciprocals is infinite.

I have one concern. How can you prove the infinitude of primes by this method without assuming the set to be infinite in the first place.
Phys.Org News Partner Science news on
Cougars' diverse diet helped them survive the Pleistocene mass extinction
Cyber risks can cause disruption on scale of 2008 crisis, study says
Mantis shrimp stronger than airplanes