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Genericcoder
#1
Nov29-12, 05:49 PM
P: 131
Why is change in potential energy is defined as

PE1 - PE0 = -W

I mean I could see it for example for gravity if we took PE0 to be zero at ground and we integerated -mgy(y^) we get -mg(y0 - y1) -> -mgh,but is their a proof somewhere where it shows it will be always negative work ?
Thank you.
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