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Dec5-12, 09:37 AM
P: 11,815
About the first quote - I'm probably conceptualizing inertia in an entirely illogical way, but I see it as an object having some quantifiable measure of inertia, or a kind of "negative energy", so the object won't move until it's been influenced by an amount of energy equal to that deficit.. does it make sense? Or am I way off?
No, that is wrong.
Any force will accelerate an object, unless there is a corresponding force of same strength in the opposite direction - friction often provides this.