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Dec26-12, 01:43 PM
P: 8
Quote Quote by HallsofIvy View Post
Yes, it is, and you can answer it by calculating the angular momentum of individual point about the end of the rod, then integrating them along the length of the rod. The result of doing that would be the formula at
that you could get to following the links you were given in tadchem's response.
it gives moment of inertia not angular momentum! Can we use the general formula(if its correct):angular moment abt any point=angular moment of a fictitious particle (of mass m at the position of COM)abt that point + angular moment of the body abt com ?