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Feb14-13, 12:36 PM
P: 21
Hi all,

It is really a history question.
I read that Galileu developed the concept of inertia, but today I knew it from Newton's 1st law. So my question is: Both of them arrived at the idea independently? Was Newton aware about Galileu's work and used the law because it is the basis for his 2nd law F=ma?

Thank you,
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